Most Civilisations have CENTERS OF GRAVITY by which they are Identified ... The Nile civilisation's CofG was the Nile .... Indus Valley's was the Indus ...Pakistan from 3000 BC to the present:
1. Indus Valley Civilization: 3000-1500 B.C. i.e. about 1500 yrs. Independent, separate from India.
Sir , Indus Valley Age civilisations have also been found in and aroud Delhi.
There is absolutely no evidence to claim that IVC was found only in areas which is today claimed to be pak.For example , you can look about details for the discovery of ancient city of dwaraka somewhere in gujrat.And we do not know the form of government , if any existed in that era to claim it to be INDEPENDENT.
It is true that all civilisations out-grow their CofG ... and extend tentacles of influence ...
BUT
the ORIGIN of the CIVILISATION IS KNOWN BY WHERE IT ORIGINATED AND WHERE ITS COFG WAS .... the civilisation is not defined by its periphery but by its CENTER ...
It has NOT been disproved either2. Aryan period: 1500-522 B.C. i.e. about 978 yrs. Independent, separate from India.
AIT , is a hotly debated issue even today.But the recent discoveries and scholars seem to point out that AIT was only a theory..nothing more.
The other states were seperate .... those that existed within the boundries of present Pakistan were FURTHER SEPERATED from the states in India BY THE FACT THAT THEY WERE "SATRAPIES" UNDER THE UNIFIED RULE OF PERSIA which gave them a further SEPERATE IDENTITY and CULTURAL INFLUENCE3. Small semi-independent states: 522-326 B.C. i.e. about 196 yrs. Under the suzerainty of Iran's Kayani (Achaemenian) Empire.
Whole of then India consisted of such states.Each was fiercly independent and what they all had in common was the culture and way of living.
Seperate EXISTENCE .... NOT ONE UNITED NATION WITH INDIA4. Conquered by Alexander and remained under his successor: 326-300 B.C. i.e. about 26 yrs. Under Greek rulers, not part of India.
So how does this validate the TNT ?
It can in no way what-so-ever be called Hindu ... even if you wish not to call it buddhist .... even if ... for arguments sake I accept your theory "Akhand Bharat" .... note it existed for ONLY 100 years .... out of 7000 thousand5. Province of Mauryan Empire which included Afghanistan: 300-200 B.C. i.e. about 100 yrs. Part of India, mostly Buddhist rule.
it is wrong to call it buddhist rule , though much buddhist influences were felt.mauryan empire is the akhand bharat.nothing more.
and so .... this only shows that it was NOT part of any centralised INDIAN ... "akhand bharat" nation6. Graeco-Bactrian period: 200-100 B.C. i.e. about 100 yrs. Independent, not part of India.
Please read Indian history , there were 100s of independent states prevlant in india then after the fall of Mauryas.
Please read my last post too ... while India at that time consisted of seperate independent states that were at times hostile to one another .... those on this side of the border were unified under saka-parthian rule and culture and were a coherent centrally administered state ... seperate from the other states in India7. Saka-Parthian period: 100 B.C.- 70 A.D. i.e. about 170 yrs. Independent, separate from India.
Yet again ! Read my last point.
It does not matter what you claim ... just read up as to where their CENTER AND CAPITAL WERE BASED ... who they themselves were ....8. Kushan rule (1st phase): 70-250 A.D. i.e. about 180 yrs. Pakistan-based kingdom ruled over major portion of north India.
Kushans were who my dear ? I claim them Indians![]()
The were NOT BASED in what is known as India ... they were NOT Indian ...
Please read my post above - and .... lets keep it polite and civil ... shall we?9. Kushan rule (2nd phase): 250-450 A.D. i.e. about 200 yrs. Independent, separate from India.
Shit ! How many times are people going to use this independent damned word.
Do you know who the white Huns were .... do you know where they settled ... they NEVER EVER crossed the present boundaries of Pakistan into what is today known as India ... their influence and control was limited to their region and the dealt with the states further to the east as FOREIGN states ...10. White Huns and allied tribes (1st phase): 450-650 A.D. i.e. about 200 yrs. Pakistan-based kingdoms ruled over parts of north India.
Pre-Islam , it was always a part of our culture and ways of living.Plus it was the place where we and other cultures mixed up and thereby enriched our culture
More than you can imagine ... nearly all Kashmiris .... muslims are converts who were bhramin .... many Punjabis were converts who were Rajput11. White Huns (2nd phase--- mixed with other races): 650-1010 A.D. i.e. about 360 yrs. Independent Rajput-Brahmin Kingdoms, not part of India.
I wonder how Rajput-Brahmins were not Indians![]()
Strange .... this whole timeline shows our HISTORY starting from 3000BC .... what makes you think that I would claim that our history startes in 1010 ...12. Ghaznavids: 1010-1187 A.D. i.e. 177 yrs. Part of Ghaznavid empire, separate from India.
Here come the bandits and plunderers....so the kind of glorious islamic history you claim starts exactly 4000 years later form when you claimed your lands history.
They were no different than all the other peoples of their times in their behaviour and attitude ...
they did not run away .... but settled within what is today Pakistan ...
Please read above13. Ghorid and Qubacha periods: 1187-1227 A.D. i.e. about 40 yrs. Independent, not part of India.
Yeah it got washed down the gutter from here.I concur.
Please read answer to point 12 above ... point is that they were INDEPENDENT OF INDIA ....14. Muslim period (Slave dynasty, Khiljis, Tughlaqs, Syeds, Lodhis, Suris and Mughals): 1227-1739 A.D. i.e. about 512 yrs. Under north India based MUSLIM govts.
Yeah Yeah , the horrible acts of those muslim rulers is well known in the form of destruction of temples, cities as a whole , massacres and the famed tolerance taxes stuff.Wonder what this has to do with TNT
Please read answer to point 12 above ... Iranians share CULTURE ... RACE and RELIGION WITH US ...15. Nadir Shah and Abdali periods: 1739-1800 A.D. i.e. about 61 yrs. Iranian and Afghan suzerainty, not part of India.
good , so no matter what you will rather be a iranian slave country , and call it not part of india.sheez.
Apart from that .... even our Physical appearance is more Persian than Indian ...
Point here is .... INDEPENDENT FROM INDIA
Please read history of sikhism and why and how it came about16. Sikh rule (in Punjab, NWFP and Kashmir), Talpur rule in Sind, Khanate of Kalat in Baluchistan: 1800-1848 A.D. i.e. about 48 yrs. Independent states, not part of India.
I thought Sikhism is a very part of our rich culture.
One of the rare periods when we were FORCIBLY ADMINISTERED BY A FOREIGN CCUPYING FORCE AS A UNITED STATE WITH INDIA ...17. British rule: 1848-1947 A.D. i.e. about 99 yrs (1843-1947 in Sind). Part of India under FOREIGN rule.
Yeah what does this have to do with TNT ?
prior to this it was always TWO NATIONS ...
Just like arabs should learn to accept Israel .... people like you should learn to accept Pakistan18. Muslim rule under the nomenclature of Pakistan: 1947-present. Independent, not part of India.
Thats what is sad![]()
Well ... I could say that Jinnah took all of you for a ride ...Now Mohammed Ali Jinnah , based his proposal for Pakistan on the basis of minorities....so which of all those historical stuff is parallel with jinnahs idea of minorities as a seperate nation. ?... if he were actually talking about Islam ... why did all the Mullahs of United British India oppose him tooth and nail ....
only you (plural) believed him ... and a few indian who migrated .... while all the while he wanted to reenact the same old nation that had existed INDEPENDENT FROM INDIA for 7000 years ...
ofcourse .... using Islam meant that maybe we could grab csome more space ...![]()
Last edited by visioninthedark; 29 Sep 04, at 11:10.