I got into an argument with a potential business associate during an informal meeting. We got into the history of Spanish history through the topic of Christopher Columbus and from there it spilled over into the topic of the treatment and history of Native Americans at the hands of English and modern day Americans.
He said that English countries are the only countries that have managed to wipe out indigenous populations. He says look at the number of Native Americans before the English settlers came to North America and afterwards today. He says that less than 1% of America's population can actually trace their descent to Native American ancestry while south of America, over 20% of each nation can genuinely claim to be Indian or Native American tribe. He says this is proof that Americans actually committed genocide and is whitewashing it. He says that Spanish colonialism was far better than English colonialism when it comes to treatment of the natives. Natives had more rights and better treatment under the Spanish rule than those under the English or English speaking rule. Furthermore, when the Spanish left in the mid 1800s, the former colonies had competent social services administration and civil service administration but it soon fell apart due to corruption and greed, which were not the fault of the Spanish people. He feels that the Spanish has been unfairly demoagogued by the English speaking countries for its colonial past and its treatment of the natives.
He showed me to a website where the natives actually thrive in Spanish speaking countries whereas in English speaking countries, the natives are nearly wiped out or is in serious decline.
I tried explaining to him that it wasn't systematic genocide but through a series of unfortunate incidences such as the spread of disease from Europe where the natives had no immunity to it. He rejected by saying that the Spanish also brought disease but today, you see 20% of the population claiming to be natives.
I would like to hear your thoughts and opinions on this subject.
He said that English countries are the only countries that have managed to wipe out indigenous populations. He says look at the number of Native Americans before the English settlers came to North America and afterwards today. He says that less than 1% of America's population can actually trace their descent to Native American ancestry while south of America, over 20% of each nation can genuinely claim to be Indian or Native American tribe. He says this is proof that Americans actually committed genocide and is whitewashing it. He says that Spanish colonialism was far better than English colonialism when it comes to treatment of the natives. Natives had more rights and better treatment under the Spanish rule than those under the English or English speaking rule. Furthermore, when the Spanish left in the mid 1800s, the former colonies had competent social services administration and civil service administration but it soon fell apart due to corruption and greed, which were not the fault of the Spanish people. He feels that the Spanish has been unfairly demoagogued by the English speaking countries for its colonial past and its treatment of the natives.
He showed me to a website where the natives actually thrive in Spanish speaking countries whereas in English speaking countries, the natives are nearly wiped out or is in serious decline.
I tried explaining to him that it wasn't systematic genocide but through a series of unfortunate incidences such as the spread of disease from Europe where the natives had no immunity to it. He rejected by saying that the Spanish also brought disease but today, you see 20% of the population claiming to be natives.
I would like to hear your thoughts and opinions on this subject.
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