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Old 09-01-2007, 18:28 PM   #72 (permalink)
beka
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Join Date: 02-14-07
Posts: 75
Quote:
Originally Posted by Stan187 View Post
The British also made a promise to Jews to create a homeland there. What else is new? Not the first time the Brits played both sides.

How long do a certain people have to live somewhere before it is their land? Twenty years? Two hundred years?

As far as the UN answer there, anyone who lived in "Palestine" for two years at some point before the partition is considered a Palestinian refugee. So are their children, and children's children and so on and so fourth. Well, anyone except Jews that is.
So you are going to sit here and tell me that the majority of Palestinians living in Israel/Palestine at the time of the partion were immigrants? That's crap. There are articles by Jewish people who were studying Palestine to see if it could be a future Jewish state, and these articles talk about the fact that the land was already occupied by Arabs, that's in the late 1800's. It's a well known fact that the Arabs were living there and occupying that land.. It wasn't a desolate land, there were people living there, and those people's wants and needs should have been considered first.

It would be like if when Canada was a colony. The British decided that they were going to give away the land of Canada, not to the people who were living there, but instead they were going to move in people from New Zealand/ Africa and give them full control over Canada, regardless of how the citizens of Canada at the time felt. If the British had tried to do this to Canadians at the time, there would have been an outrcy from Western nations. However, it was okay to do this to the Arabs, because they are Arabs and not white, so some how there rights are non existent.

Last edited by beka : 09-01-2007 at 18:31 PM.
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