ZFboxcar,
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You seem to be implying two things which I strongly disagree with: that Israel's creation was somehow a crime against Egypt, Tunisia, Algeria, Jordan, Lebanon, Iraq, and Syria, etc, and also that it just makes sense for Jews everywhere to be punished for the State of Israel. I know you don't believe that (at least not the second thing), but I must point that out because it is the starting assumption for your post and it should be questioned.
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no, i don't believe either of the two points. coming from taiwan, you may understand that the emotional impact of this issue doesn't resonate as much with me as it would say, to an arab or to an israeli.
i meant it academically.
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It was similar to Germany in the 1930s. Germany simultaneously passed discriminatory laws against Jews and gave a time table for leaving. The Arab states were doing the same thing: passing laws directed against Jews (seisure of property and assets, citizenship, engaging in mass arrests). As well, given the level of anti-Semitism, I don't doubt many Jews felt that staying longer it would only get worse, but they would not be able to leave afterwards.
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sure, but that only pushes back the question one level: was this done as a response to the creation of israel, or would this have occurred even without the presence of israel? and if the latter, what would be the impetus/reason for suddenly revving up these pogroms?
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No doubt the Zionist movement had a large impact, but unless you support the statements I disagreed with at the beginning of this post, that does not make it the "fault" of the Israeli state.
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again, not trying to find fault but rather, causation. as you say, the divided policies make it hard to find any smooth line of logic here, especially when we're trying to figure out why the jewish exodus in 1948 and not, say, 1945...