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Originally Posted by M21Sniper
The phalanx was always used by the greeks- alexander in particular- as an anvil to the cavalrys hammer.
Therefore, it was EVERY BIT as indispensible as the cavalry itself.
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Greek did not use Cavalry as a hammer AFAIK. It was Phillip II and Alexander. As I said the phalanx evolved due to the situational need and that way it's role was defined.
BTW if you have a choise what will you choose, a hammer and an anvil or two hammers. Cavalry's value was never fully used in ancient time more because of socio-economic stucture than the said lack of stirrups or weaker horses.
Why Battle of Adrianople is considered end of ancient era? Because the superiority of Cavalry was decisively established. Why Roman Armies fell to the barbarions again and again after that?
Cavalry ALWAYS had superiority which was proven by Companion Cavalry several times BREAKING THROUGH the infantry lines or better example will be Battle of Carrhae
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That is why I said phalanx was not even meant to be used alone to smash variety of enemy force. It kept going because in greek cities where other rivals were also only using phalanx. When they faced a different army organization they fell down like a castle of cards.
Though Roman army organization was better and more flexible, it originated from the availabity of a soldier class and a lot of time to train and organize. Then we'll realize that why in early days even legions had linear organization sometimes called "phalanx legions" when the soldiers were not so professional.